MODEL QUESTIONS FOR IPO & PM GRADE 1 EXAM Qn 26-50

(Postal Manual Volume VI Qn 26-50)

26.       When a VP article is delivered as ordinary registered article and the VP amount subsequently collected the amount should be taken to

a)                 MO issue and VPMO issued

b)                 To UCR and the amount paid to the sender charging under UCP

c)                  To UCR and VPMO issued by per-contra charge to UCP

d)                 Amount sent by service MO to the sender                                           Ans:c(227a)

e)                  

27.       A VP articles on which intimation has been served an lying in the deposit for seven days can be retained

a)                 For further seven days without any fees

b)                 For further seven days on payment of fees

c)                  For fifteen days on payment of fees

d)                 Cannot be retained return to sender after 7 days                                  Ans:b(231)

e)                  

28.       In case of refused/unclaimed VP articles the VPMO form should be

a)                 Returned back to sender

b)                 Destroyed

c)                  Filled in the office

d)                 Upper portion of MO form destroyed and lower portion with sender’s certificate to be filed                                                                                                            Ans:d(232)

29.       No redirection fee is charge on redirection of a parcel

a)                 If the revised address of the addressee is within the same delivery office

b)                 If the revised address of the addressee is within the same post town

c)                  If the parcel is returned to sender and if the sender resides in a different address within the delivery area of the office or within the same post town

d)                 All the above                                                                                                 Ans:d(189)

30.       The amount noted for remittance to sender of VP article

a)                 Can be altered free of cost at the request of the sender

b)                 Can be altered on payment of prescribed fee at the request of the sender

c)                  Can only recall the article

d)                 None of these                                                                                               Ans:a(210)

31.       Postage stamps can be affixed to IPOs to made up broken amount on the condition

a)                 The no of stamp should not exceed 3

b)                 Amount should not exceed 4

c)                  Total value of IPO including the stamps affixed there in should not exceed 100

d)                 All the above                                                                                                 Ans:d(188)

32.       Unpaid postage abstract is a record in form______-which is to be maintained by every_____ and_______to record the _______of unpaid articles

a)                 MS-88, Account office, Circle account office, registered

b)                 ACG 45, Sub office and branch office, receipt

c)                  ACG 45 , Head office and sub office, receipt and dispatch

d)                 ACG 45, Account office, Head office, receipt and dispatch                 Ans:c

33.       To availing registered journals facility at least ____  regd articles has to be booked monthly

            a)         150                                                     b)         200

            c)         250                                                     d)         500                                         Ans:b

34        The sender of an inland regd article may obtain attested copy of the addressee’s receipt on application made to the Post office within_____ of the date on which the addressee signed the original receipt.

            a)         3 months                                           b)         4 months

            c)         6 months                                           d)         One year                                Ans:c(185)

35.       It will be ensured that the aggregate value of all the VP articles including article including customs duty articles entrusted to an EDDA does not exceed Rs ______

            a)         8000/-                                                 b)         5000/-

            c)         10000/-                                               d)         20000/-                                   Ans:a

36        Postmaster order book (MS-1) maintained in

a)         All sub offices                                   b)         All Branch offices

c)         All Head offices                                d)         All the above                         Ans:c(50)

37.       In PO  when duties of Pas are combined, the combination permissible is

            a)         Money order & Treasury                 b)         Sub account & mail

            c)         Delivery and Deposit                       d)         Delivery and mail                 Ans:d(4)\

38.       The customs duty due on letter/packets of the foreign letter/mail should be realized

a)                 And brought in to a separate head at the PO

b)                 In cash and credited under UCR

c)                  In cash and converted in to postage stamps affixed and defaced on receipts

d)                 Should be collected and sent to customs authorities directly              Ans:a(1(3))

39.       Business reply cards and envelops should be taxed

a)                 At the prepaid rate of postage

b)                 Twice the deficiency of the postage

c)                  At the prepaid rate of postage and handling charges.

d)                 At the twice the deficiency of postage and handling charges.                        Ans:c(32)

40.       If an insufficiently prepaid VP article is found in a letter box, it should be

a)                 Returned to sender

b)                 Booked in the normal course and postage due is collected from the addressee

c)                  Booked in the normal course as a registered article

d)                 None of these                                                                                               Ans:a(33)

41.       Loose account bags containing cash bags will be in the personal custody of the

            a)         Postmaster/Sub postmaster                       b)         Sorting assistant

            c)         Sub Accounts assistant                              d)         Treasurer                   Ans:d(67)

42.       Transit bags means

a)                 Several bags intended for other offices received loose at the office

b)                 Bags to be kept in deposit at the office

c)                  Several bags intended to be dealt with the office enclosed in a bag addressed to the office

d)                 None of these                                                                                               Ans:c(33)

43.       Redirection fee for redirecting parcels should be collected

a)                 In cash and credited in to account as such

b)                 In cash and credited under UCR head

c)                  Should be collected in the form of undefaced postage stamps

d)                 Should be affixed on the parcel in the form of postage stamps and defaced

Ans:c(30)

44.       Notice of hours of Business for PO/RMS offices should be supplied by

            a)         Head Post master                            b)         Asst. Supd to PO

            c)         Postmaster General                        

            d)         Sr. Supdt of Pos/ Supdt. of Pos. of the division                                     Ans:d(5)

45.       Left India articles to be sent to RLO

           

            a)         At once                                              b)         One week

            c)         15 days                                              d)         One month                            Ans:a

46.       Time limit for requesting copy of address’s receipt of Regd articles

            a)         One month                                        b)         Two month

            c)         Three month                                     d)         Six month                              Ans:c

47.       Notice of hours business for Branch office will be supplied by

            a)         The Divisional Supdt.                     b)         The Head Postmaster

            c)         The account office                           d)         Sub divisional Inspector     Ans:d

48.       Postal mails superscribed in “ On India Government Service” received for delivery

           

a)                 Containing both name and address of the officer to be delivered redirected according to official designation

b)                 Containing only the name to be delivered according to name of the addressee

c)                  Postal mails not bearing the superscription “ On India government Service” but contain name and designation of the officer., to be delivered redirected according to name

d)                 All the above                                                                                                 Ans:d(10)

49.       A letter delivered to an addressee can be reposted within the post town for redirection

           

            a)         After getting redirection fee            b)         After getting 50% of redirection fee

            c)         After collecting  fee equal to postage       d)         Free of cost               Ans:d(71)

                                

50.       When a VP article is redirected, intimation should be served to

            a)         Office of posting                               b)         The addressee

            c)         The sender                                        d)         The concerned RMS           Ans:a

 

(Prepared by AB Kantharaja, Mobile 08969822340,

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Create Keyboard Short Cut Keys for Programs in Windows Vista / 7

Most of we are used our own programs . Every time when we have to open our programs through start programs or we want to select it from desk topthrough mouse button. Most of the methods are time consuming. If we are very thorough in key board we can set key board shortcuts for our own programs in windows vista and seven operating systems.

• For setting keyboard short cut keys

• Right click the program
• Select the Tab properties
• Select the button short cut
• Click on Short cut keys (But you cannot erase the none with back space or delete)
• Please click on Control key Then you will get(Control + Alt+----)
• You have to select the key (U,A,D,L,M,N etc)
• and click on Apply and then OK
• And you can open the program with your key board shortcut key.

Courtesy : saparavur.blogspot.in

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Maternity Benefit Act, 1961

Review and amendments of various labour laws is an ongoing process. The Maternity Benefit Act, 1961 was amended in 2008 by which for section 8, the following section was substituted:

“8(1) Every woman entitled to maternity benefit under this Act shall also be entitled to receive from her employer a medical bonus of one thousand rupees, if no pre-natal confinement and post-natal care is provided for by the employer free of charge.

(2) The Central Government may before every three years by notification in the Official Gazette increase the amount of medical bonus subject to the maximum of twenty thousand rupees”.

The Central Government vide notification No. S.O. 2016(E) dated 11th August, 2008 increased the amount of medical bonus from Rs. 1000/- to Rs. 2500/-. Further, vide notification No. S.O. 2016(E) dated 19th December, 2011, the amount of medical bonus has been increased from Rs. 2500/- to Rs. 3500/-.

This information was given by the Union Labour & Employment Minister Shri Mallikarjun Kharge in reply to a written question in the Lok Sabha today.

pib

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OUR BPM BECOMES AN IAS OFFICER

OUR BPM BECOMES AN IAS OFFICER

Selvi S. ArunaDevi, a GDS BPM Uralpatti BO A/W Komaralingam SO Under Udamalpet HPO, Coimbatore Region, Tamilnadu  has come out successful in all forms of IAS Examination ( Preliminary,Main and Interview ) in a single attempt. 

She did her school studies in a rural school and college studies in a private College at Udamalpet. She is brought up in a poor family background. She prepared for the IAS on her own without any coaching. A very poor GDS from a rural background , studied not in reputed city institutions and without any coaching, coming out successful in IAS is a great achievement. Wishes can be shared thro her mobile No. 96594 90913 / 7502921049.

SAPOST & katiharho.blogspot.in Congratulate her achievement in IAS  Exam

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Convening of regular DPC for promotion to PS Group ‘B’

No. CHQ/IPASP/DPC/2012                                               Dated :       7/5/2012.

To,

Smt. Manjula Prasher,

Director General,

Department of Posts,

Dak Bhavan, New Delhi 110 001.

Sub:     Convening of regular DPC for promotion to PS Group ‘B’

Respected Madam,

I intend to bring to your kind attention one of the areas, where delay is occurring in non-convening of DPC for promotion of IP/ASP to PS Group ‘B’.

2.         In this connection, attention is invited to the consolidated instructions on DPC, circulated vide DOP&T’s OM No.22011/5/86-Estt.D dated 10.4.89, which, interalia, provides that DPCs should be convened at regular intervals to draw up panels which could be utilized for effecting promotions/against vacancies occurring during the course of a given year. These instructions enjoin upon the concerned authorities to initiate action to fill up the existing as well as anticipated vacancies well before the expiry of the previous panel in their respective reservation quota that is not covered in adhoc promotion. Moreover adhoc promotions can not provide uniformity amongst Circles as the vacancy positions differ from Circle to Circle.

3          According to the standing instructions, action for convening the DPCs should be initiated before the commencement of the vacancy year and that DPCs should be held against future vacancies so that justice is met to all and no category feel isolated. Non convening of timely DPC is effecting next financial up-gradation (MACP) to the officers. 

4.       It is understood that 22 TO 23 vacancies out of 649 posts of PS Gr. B earmarked for 75% quota are lying vacant for the vacancy year 2011, so supplementary DPC for the vacancy year 2011 may please be ordered to conduct before any promotion through LDCE. Any overlapping under different quota can lead to legal complication and cause creation of supernumerary post for the promotion of all seniors being set rules and procedure.      

5.         In view of the above, it is requested that suitable orders may kindly be passed to put in place immediately for calling records and required planning is done to convene the DPC, not only for the left out vacancies for the year 2011, but also for the vacancy years 2012, so that panels are prepared in time allowing sufficient time is given to the officers to join well before time and that the extant orders on the subject are followed, both in letter and spirit.

                        With regards,

Sd/-

(Vilas Ingale)

General Secretary

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Letters to Department

Some more correspondence, the CHQ had with Department during last week is furnished below for the consumption of viewers.

1. Arbitrary stoppage of SB Allowance on acquiring MACP - case of Maharashtra Circle - reg.

2. Computerisation in accounts branch – Defects in the Modules – regarding

3. Irregular denial of family pension to the physically handicapped ward of the deceased pensioner – Case of Shri. P. R. Gurav S/o Late R. S. Gurav in Jalgaon Divison Maharashtra Circle

4. Irregular interpretation in filling up the posts of LSG (NB) in Accounts line – request modification.

5. Irregularities in calculation and notification of vacancies in IP cadre - case of U. P. Circle

6. Irregularities in grant of LSG promotion in Accounts cadre – case of Jharkhand Circle reg

7. Misuse of contributory negligence factors for recovering the loss from the innocent officials

8. PLI/RPLI unadjusted items – modification sought for in Accounts PB modules

9. Refixation of Pay/Pension to BCR/LSG officials who have officiated in HSG I Posts – case of Tamilnadu Circle regarding

 
Posted by AIPEU P3 CHQ

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400 Selected Questions on Indian Constitution Paper-III for IPO Examination

400 Selected Questions on Indian Constitution

Paper-III for IPO Examination

1. Indian Republic is not the product of—
(A) Political Revolution
(B) Discussion
(C) Made by a body of eminent representatives of the people
(D) All the above

2. For the first time, British Parliament enacted which laws for the British Government to govern in India—
(A) Govt. of India Act 1857
(B) Govt. of India Act 1858
(C) Govt. of India Act 1891
(D) Govt. of India Act 1888

3. The British Secretary of the State governed India through which Institution—
(A) Executive Council
(B) Parliament
(C) Governor assisted by an Executive Council
(D) Governor General appointed by an Executive Council

4. Under the British Rule in India, Governor General was responsible to—
(A) Secretary of India
(B) Secretary of Britain
(C) Secretary of State
(D) None of the above

5. Morely-Minto reform is associated with which Act—
(A) Indian Council Act 1856
(B) Indian Council Act 1909
(C) Indian Council Act 1908
(D) Indian Council Act 1912

6. During the British rule, which community got separate representation from which Act—
(A) Christian Community & Indian Council Act 1909
(B) Buddhist Community & Indian Council Act 1907
(C) Muslim Community & Indian Council Act 1909
(D) All the above

7. During the British period, under which Act election was introduced in India—
(A) Indian Council Act 1913
(B) Indian Council Act 1909
(C) Indian Council Act 1906
(D) Indian Council Act 1907

8. Montagu-Chelmsford report is associated with which Govt of India Act—
(A) Govt. of India Act 1918
(B) Govt. of India Act 1920
(C) Govt. of India Act 1930
(D) Govt. of India Act 1919

9. When was the Indian National Congress established—
(A) 1888
(B) 1885
(C) 1889
(D) 1890

10. Under the British Rule when ‘Dyarchy Governing System’ was introduced for the first time—
(A) Govt. of India Act 1919
(B) Govt. of India Act 1929
(C) Govt. of India Act 1925
(D) Govt. of India Act 1935

11. Under the Govt. of India Act 1935, which communities were provided separate representation in the Electorate system—
(A) Sikh, Europeans
(B) Indian Christians
(C) Anglo-Indians
(D) All the above

12. Under which Government of India Act, Federation and Provincial Autonomy were introduced in India—
(A) Govt. of India Act 1935
(B) Govt. of India Act 1930
(C) Govt. of India Act 1940
(D) Govt. of India Act 1936

13. Under the British rule, how many acts came into operation—
(A) Govt. of India Act 1858, Indian Council Act 1861
(B) Indian Council Act 1892, Indian Council Act 1809
(C) Govt. of India Act 1919, Govt. of India Act 1935, Indian Independence Act 1947
(D) All the above

14. Which Act provided India to become an Independent state—
(A) Indian Independence Act 1949
(B) Indian Independence Act 1946
(C) Indian Independence Act 1947
(D) None of the above

15. Under the Govt. of India Act 1935, the Indian Federation worked through which kind of list—
(A) Federal List
(B) Provincial List
(C) Concurrent List
(D) All the above

16. In the Govt. of India Act 1835, Federal List contained which kind of subjects—
(A) External Affairs
(B) Currency and Coinage
(C) Naval, Military and Force, Census
(D) All the above

17. In the Govt. of India Act 1935, provincial list included which kind of subjects—
(A) Police
(B) Provincial Public Service
(C) Education
(D) All the above

18. In the Govt. of India Act 1935, which subjects are included in the concurrent list—
(A) Criminal Law & Procedure, Civil Procedure
(B) Marriage
(C) Divorce, Arbitration
(D) All the above

19. Under the Govt. of India Act 1935, who had the power to proclaim emergency—
(A) Governor General
(B) General of India
(C) Governor of the State
(D) None of the above

20. In the Govt. of India Act 1935, who was authorised to make a law on the Provincial subject—
(A) Governor
(B) Governor General
(C) Federal Legislature
(D) None of the above

21. Which Constitution is in the written form for the first time by an elected body during the Modern period—
(A) India
(B) America
(C) Britain
(D) France

22. Who was the de facto Prime Minister at the time of evolution of the Indian Constituent Assembly—
(A) Moti Lal Nehru
(B) Sardar Ballabh Bhai Patal
(C) Jawahar Lal Nehru
(D) H. N. Kunzru

23. Who boicotted the Indian Constituent Assembly—
(A) Unionist Muslim
(B) Muslim League
(C) Unionist Scheduled Caste
(D) Krishak Poja

24. In the Constituent Assembly, which parties were members—
(A) Congress, Muslim League, Unionist Muslim
(B) Unionist Scheduled Caste, Krishak Poja, Scheduled Castes Federation, Sikh (Non Congress)
(C) Communists, Independents
(D) All the above

25. Which party said that Indian Constituent Assembly does not have a fully representative character—
(A) Congress
(B) Muslim League
(C) Unionist Muslim
(D) Unionist Scheduled Castes

26. After independence, who decided to determine the Future Constitution of India—
(A) Jawahar Lal Nehru
(B) Sardar Ballabh Bhai Patel
(C) Constituent Assembly
(D) None of the above

27. Whom the Indian Constituent Assembly represented—
(A) Fully representative of the Hindus
(B) Fully representative of the State in India
(C) Fully representative of the Provinces in India
(D) Fully representative of the States and Provinces in India

28. Through which offer, the British Government authoritatively supported a Constituent Assembly for making the Indian Constitution
(A) August offer
(B) Viceroy offer
(C) Sir Strafford Cripps offer
(D) None of the above

29. Who supported the views of the Constituent Assembly for making the Indian Constitution—
(A) Sardar Patel
(B) Gandhiji
(C) Jinnah
(D) None of the above

30. Gandhiji wrote which article in the Harijan of 19th November 1939 to support the formation of Constituent Assembly for making the Constitution of India—
(A) The need of Constitution
(B) Formation of Constituent Assembly
(C) The only way
(D) The way

31. Which Party supported formation of a Constituent Assembly—
(A) Congress
(B) Muslim League
(C) Unionist Muslim
(D) Unionist Scheduled Castes

32. When did Constituent Assembly adopt a national Flag—
(A) 22nd Aug. 1947
(B) 22nd July 1947
(C) 22nd Jan. 1947
(D) 22nd Oct. 1947

33. Did the Constituent Assembly exist at the time of Indian Independence—
(A) No
(B) Only idea emerged
(C) Yes
(D) Uncertainty regarding formation of said Assembly

34. Who was the last British Governor General who addressed the Constituent Assembly—
(A) Lord Attlee
(B) Lord Mount Batten
(C) Lord Bentick
(D) None of the above

35. When did the Constituent Assembly passed a resolution for translation of the Constitution of India into Hindi and other many languages of India—
(A) 17th Sep. 1949
(B) 17th Oct. 1949
(C) 17th Nov. 1949
(D) 17th Dec. 1949

36. What was the last session of the Constituent Assembly—
(A) Eleventh session
(B) Twelfth session
(C) Sixteenth session
(D) Seventh session

37. When was the last Twelfth session of the Constituent Assembly held—
(A) 24th Jan. 1950
(B) 24th Feb. 1950
(C) 24th April 1950
(D) 24th Dec. 1950

38. How many copies of the Constitution were printed after the Constituent Assembly framed the same—
(A) Two
(B) One
(C) Three
(D) Four

39. Which song was sang in the Constituent Assembly before its Adjournment sine die—
(A) Jana Gana Man
(B) Vande Matram
(C) A & B
(D) None of the above

40. For how many years, months and days, did the Constituent Assembly work on the Constitution of India—
(A) 2 Years, 11 months and 19 Days
(B) 3 Years, 12 months and 16 Days
(C) 4 Years, 18 months and 6 Days
(D) None of the above

41. How many number of sessions were held in the Constituent Assembly—
(A) Twenty sessions
(B) Twelve sessions
(C) Twenty-five sessions
(D) Twenty-eight sessions

42. How many Articles and Schedules were in the First Draft Constitution presented by the Drafting Committee to the Constituent Assembly—
(A) 318 Articles and 7 Schedules
(B) 319 Articles ad 10 Schedules
(C) 315 Articles and 8 Schedules
(D) 399 Articles and 5 Schedules

43. In the final form of the Constitution adopted by the Constituent Assembly, how many Articles and Schedules were there—
(A) 397 Articles and 9 Schedules
(B) 395 Articles and 4 Schedules
(C) 396 Articles and 7 Schedules
(D) 395 Articles and 8 Schedules

44. In the Constituent Assembly how many total number of Amendments were proposed in the Draft Constitution—
(A) Approx. 7935
(B) Approx. 7892
(C) Approx. 7365
(D) Approx. 2473

45. What was the expenditure made by the Constituent Assembly while framing the Constitution of India—
(A) Rs. 63,96,729
(B) Rs. 64,98,725
(C) Rs. 69,92,769
(D) Rs. 65,92,926

46. How many visitors came to witness the proceedings of the Constituent Assembly—
(A) 52,500
(B) 53,000
(C) 54,000
(D) 54,500

47. Who presented the Objective Resolution in the Constituent Assembly—
(A) Jawaharlal Nehru
(B) Motilal Nehru
(C) Sardar Ballabah Bhai Patel
(D) None of the above

48. When was the First Draft of the Constitution of India proposed—
(A) Oct. 1945
(B) Oct. 1947
(C) Oct. 1946
(D) Oct. 1948

49. Who prepared the first draft Constitution of India—
(A) Jawahar Lal Nehru
(B) Gandhiji
(C) Advisory Branch of the Constituent Assembly
(D) Sardar Ballabh Bhai Patel

50. Who was the Chairman of the Draft Committee of the Constituent Assembly—
(A) Dr. B. R. Ambedkar
(B) K. M. Munshi
(C) Jagjivan Ram
(D) None of the above

Answers :
1.(A) 2.(B) 3.(D) 4.(C) 5.(B) 6.(C) 7.(B) 8.(D) 9.(B) 10.(A)
11.(D) 12.(A) 13.(D) 14.(C) 15.(D) 16.(D) 17.(D) 18.(D) 19.(A) 20.(C)
21.(B) 22.(C) 23.(B) 24.(D) 25.(B) 26.(C) 27.(D) 28.(A) 29.(B) 30.(C)
31.(A) 32.(B) 33.(C) 34.(B) 35.(A) 36.(B) 37.(A) 38.(C) 39.(C) 40.(A)
41.(B) 42.(C) 43.(D) 44.(C) 45.(A) 46.(B) 47.(A) 48.(B) 49.(C) 50.(A)

51. When was the draft Constitution of India prepared by the Drafting Committee submitted to the President of the Constituent Assembly—
(A) 28th Feb. 1948
(B) 26th Feb. 1948
(C) 21st Feb. 1948
(D) 25th Feb. 1948

52. When was the Second Reading of the Constitution completed in the Constituent Assembly—
(A) 18 Nov. 1949
(B) 17 Nov. 1949
(C) 15 Nov. 1949
(D) 16 Nov. 1949

53. How many readings were held on the Constitution in the Constituent Assembly—
(A) First Reading
(B) Third Reading
(C) Second Reading
(D) None of the above

54. When was the Constitution of India adopted by the Constituent Assembly—
(A) 25th Nov. 1949
(B) 29th Nov. 1949
(C) 26th Nov. 1949
(D) 27th Nov. 1949

55. How many Princely States existed at the time when the Constituent Assembly was making the Constitution—
(A) 600
(B) 800
(C) 900
(D) 950

56. Who said, ‘I feel, however, good a Constitution may be, it is sure to turn out bad because those who are called to work it, taken to be a bad lot. However bad a Constitution may be, it may turn out to be good if those who are called to work it, happens to be a good lot. The working of a Constitution does not depend wholly upon the nature of the Constitution’—
(A) Dr. Ambedkar
(B) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(C) Dr. Subhash Kashyap
(D) None of the above

57. Who stated, ‘As to the execution that the Draft Constitution has produced a good part of the provisions of the Government of India Act 1935, make no apologies. There is nothing to be ashamed of in Borrowing.’—
(A) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(B) Jawhar Lal Nehru
(C) Gandhiji
(D) Dr. Ambedkar

58. Who said, ‘If the people who are elected are capable and men of character and integrity, they would be able to make the best even of a defective Constitution. If they are lacking in these, the Constitution cannot help the country’—
(A) Sardar Hukam Singh
(B) K. M. Munshi
(C) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(D) Sardar Ballabh Bhai Patel

59. When were the election to the Constituent Assembly held—
(A) July 1946
(B) Aug. 1946
(C) Sep. 1946
(D) Oct. 1946

60. In the Constituent Assembly how many seats were got by the Congress—
(A) 204
(B) 205
(C) 203
(D) 208

61. How many seats were obtained by the Muslim League in the Constituent Assembly—
(A) 74
(B) 75
(C) 73
(D) 76

62. How many seats were acquired by the other parties in the Constituent Assembly—
(A) 14
(B) 15
(C) 17
(D) 18

63. How many total members were elected in the Constituent Assembly—
(A) 296
(B) 293
(C) 291
(D) 292

64. In the Parliament of India Upper House in known as—
(A) Lok Sabha
(B) Rajya Sabha
(C) Council of States
(D) None of the above

65. In the Parliament, Lower House is called as— (A) Legislative Assembly
(B) Legislative Council
(C) Rajya Sabha
(D) Lok Sabha (House of People)

66. In the Constituent Assembly who was the Head of the Union Constitution Committee—
(A) Jawaharlal Nehru
(B) Sardar Patel
(C) Subhash Buse
(D) None of the above

67. In the Constituent Assembly which words were associated with the Parliament—
(A) Parliament of the Legislature
(B) Parliament of the Union
(C) Parliament of the Federation
(D) All the above

68. In the Constituent Assembly, it was said that Parliament of the Federation shall consist of the President and what else—
(A) National Legislature
(B) National Assembly
(C) House of People
(D) Council of State

69. In the Constituent Assembly, which committee recommended that Indian Constitution adopt Parliamentary Form of Executive—
(A) Drafting Committee
(B) Constitutional Committee
(C) Union Constitution Committee
(D) All the above

70. In the Constituent Assembly, how many seats were fixed for House of People—
(A) 500
(B) 400
(C) 300
(D) 250

71. In the Constituent Assembly, what was the number of population fixed for one Representative—
(A) 7,500
(B) 7,50,000
(C) 50,000
(D) 78,500

72. Who elected Dr. Rajendra Prasad as the First President of India—
(A) Constituent Assembly
(B) Legislative Assembly
(C) Council of State
(D) Lok Sabha

73. In the Constituent Assembly who proposed the name of Dr. Rajendra Prasad as President of India—
(A) Jawaharlal Nehru
(B) Sardar Patel
(C) A & B
(D) None of the above

74. Which is our National anthem—
(A) Jana Gana Mana
(B) Vande Matram
(C) A & B
(D) None of the above

75. When did the Constituent Assembly adopt National Anthem—
(A) 25th Jan. 1950
(B) 26th Jan. 1950
(C) 24th Jan. 1950
(D) 29th Jan. 1950

76. In the last session of the Constituent Assembly which song was sung—
(A) Jan Gana Mana
(B) Vande Matram
(C) A & B
(D) None of the above

77. Which women presented National Flag in the Constituent Assembly—
(A) Smt. Sarojini Naidu
(B) Smt. Hansa Mehta
(C) Smt. Indira Gandhi
(D) None of the above
78. In the Indian National Flag, what does Ashoka's wheel represent—
(A) Wheel of the Truth
(B) Wheel of the Moral
(C) Wheel of the Dharm
(D) Wheel of the Law

79. In the National Flag, what does green colour represent—
(A) Animals
(B) Soil
(C) Human Nature
(D) Spiritual Philosophy

80. In the National Flag, what does saffron colour represent—
(A) Spirit of Renunciation
(B) Spirit of colours
(C) Spirit of Human nature
(D) None of the above

81. In the National Flag, whom does the wheel represent—
(A) Prithivi Raj Chauhan
(B) Raja Man Singh
(C) Ashoka
(D) None of the above

82. In the National Flag, what shall be the Ratio of the width to the length—
(A) 2 : 3
(B) 2 : 4
(C) 2 : 5
(D) 2 : 6

83. In the National Flag, how many colours are there—
(A) Four
(B) Three
(C) Two
(D) Five
84. Which colours are included in the National Flag—
(A) Deep Saffron
(B) White
(C) Dark Green
(D) All the above

85. In the National Flag, which colour is used in the wheel—
(A) Blue
(B) Navy Blue
(C) Red Green
(D) Green-White

86. In the Constituent Assembly, when was the ad-hoc Committee appointed for the National Flag—
(A) 23rd June 1947
(B) 23rd July 1947
(C) 23rd Jan. 1947
(D) 23rd Feb. 1947

87. What was the name of India's First Legislature—
(A) Parliament
(B) Union Parliament
(C) Constituent Assembly
(D) National Assembly.

88. During what period, Constituent Assembly of India worked—
(A) 1948-1950
(B) 1949-1951
(C) 1947-1949
(D) 1951-1952

89. Who was the first Speaker of free India's first Legislature (Constituent Assembly)
(A) G. V. Mavalankar
(B) K. M. Munshi
(C) Frank Anthony
(D) Smt. Sarojini Naidu

90. After Indian Independence who represented Provisional Parliament—
(A) Lok Sabha
(B) Parliament
(C) Rajya Sabha
(D) Constituent Assembly

91. When did India become a fully Sovereign Democratic Republic—
(A) 26th Nov. 1949
(B) 26th Nov. 1930
(C) 26th Jan. 1949
(D) 26th Nov. 1951

92. After Indian Independence, what was not Provisional Parliament provided—
(A) Directly Elected Body
(B) Indirectly Elected Body
(C) Sovereign Body
(D) None of the above

93. In the Provisional Parliament of India, how many members were there—
(A) 296
(B) 313
(C) 318
(D) 316

94. In India who amended the Constitution through the first Amendment Bill 1951—
(A) Lok Sabha
(B) Rajya Sabha
(C) Provisional Parliament
(D) Parliament

95. Who was the first Prime Minister of India at the time of Provisional Parliament—
(A) Jawahar Lal Nehru
(B) Lal Bahadur Shastri
(C) Indira Gandhi
(D) Rajiv Gandhi

96. Who was be Deputy Prime Minister of India at the time of Provisional Parliament—
(A) Jawahar Lal Nehru
(B) Sardar Ballabh Bahi Patel
(D) Maulana Abdul Kalam Azad
(D) Gulzarilal Nanda
97. Which occupation was represented more in the Provisional Parliament—
(A) Agriculturists
(B) Businessmen
(C) Teachers/Academicians
(D) Lawyers

98. From which area, more members were represented in the Provisional Parliament—
(A) Rural area
(B) Urban area
(C) Municipalities
(D) Panchayats
99. When did the first Lok Sabha function—
(A) 1952-1956
(B) 1953-1957
(C) 1952-1957
(D) None of the above

100. Who was the Prime Minister of India in the first Lok Sabha—
(A) Pandit Govind Ballabh Pant
(B) Jawahar Lal Nehru
(C) Abdul Kalam Azad
(D) C. D. Deshmukh

Answers :
51.(C) 52.(D) 53.(B) 54.(C) 55.(A) 56.(A) 57.(D) 58.(C) 59.(A) 60.(B)
61.(C) 62.(A) 63.(D) 64.(B) 65.(D) 66.(A) 67.(C) 68.(A) 69.(C) 70.(A)
71.(B) 72.(A) 73.(C) 74.(C) 75.(C) 76.(C) 77.(B) 78.(D) 79.(B) 80.(A)
81.(C) 82.(A) 83.(B) 84.(D) 85.(B) 86.(A) 87.(C) 88.(C) 89.(A) 90.(D)
91.(C) 92.(A) 93.(B) 94.(C) 95.(A) 96.(B) 97.(D) 98.(A) 99.(C) 100.(A)

101. Who was the Minister of Home Affairs in the first Lok Sabha—
(A) Jagjivan Ram
(B) C. D. Deshmukh
(C) Pandit Govind Ballabh Pant
(D) Abdul Kalam Azad

102. Who was the first Speaker of the First Lok Sabha—
(A) G.V. Mavalankar
(B) C. D. Deshmukh
(C) Dr. S. Radhakrishnan
(D) Pandit Govind Ballabh Pant

103. Who was the chairman of the Rajya Sabha at the time of fist Lok Sabha—
(A) N.C. Chatterjee
(B) Dr. S. Radhakrishnan
(C) A. K. Gopalan
(D) Mahavir Tyagi

104. Who was the father of the Lok Sabha—
(A) Hukam Singh
(B) N. Sanjiva Readdy
(C) G. S. Dhillon
(D) G. V. Mavalankar

105. When did the origin and evolution of the office of Speaker start in India—
(A) In Hindu period
(B) In British Period
(C) In Mughal period
(D) None of the above

106. Till 1920, who presided over the Legislative Council of India—
(A) Speaker
(B) Deputy Speaker
(C) Governor
(D) Governor General

107. When was the title ‘Speaker’ assumed in India—
(A) 1947
(B) 1948
(C) 1949
(D) 1946

108. Under which act, the Bicameral Central Legislature was established during the British period for the first time—
(A) Govt. of India Act 1938
(B) The Indian Council Act 1861
(C) Govt. of India Act 1919
(D) Govt. of India Act 1935

109. Who was the first President of Central Legislative Assembly before India was Independent—
(A) Sir Frederick Whyte
(B) Sir C.H. Seetalbad
(C) Sardar Patel
(D) Sir Mohammad Yakub

110. Who was the Speaker of the Constituent Assembly—
(A) Sir Abdul Rahim
(B) G. V. Mavalankar
(C) M. A. Ayyangar
(D) Sir Ibrahim Rahim Toola

111. Who was the last President of the Indian Central Legislative Assembly during the British time—
(A) G. V. Mavalankar
(B) Abdul Rahim
(C) Sir R. K. Shanumukham Chetty
(D) None of the above

112. Who was the first Indian to be the President of Central Legislative Assembly—
(A) M. A. Ayyanger
(B) B. R. Bhagat
(C) Dr. Balarm Jakhar
(D) Vithalbhai J. Patel

113. After the death of Shri G. V. Mavrlankar, who became the Speaker of the first Lok Sabha—
(A) M. A. Ayyangar
(B) K.S. Hegde
(C) N. Sanjiva Reddy
(D) None of the above

114. Who was the Speaker of the second Lok Sabha—
(A) K. S. Hegde
(B) M. A. Ayyangar
(C) Salman Khurshid
(D) Rabi Roy

115. Which Indian President was the Speaker of the Fourth Lok Sabha—
(A) S. D. Sharma
(B) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(C) N. Sanjiva Reddy
(D) Dr. S Radhakrishanan

116. Who was the Speaker of the Sixth Lok Sabha—
(A) N. Sanjiva Reddy
(B) K. S. Hegde
(C) A and B
(D) None of the above

117. Which article of the Indian Constitution mentioned the posts of Speaker and Deputy Speaker of the House of People—
(A) Article 95
(B) Article 93
(C) Article 91
(D) Article 96

118. Who is the Head to transact the business of the Lok Sabha—
(A) Prime Minister
(B) Members of Lok Sabha
(C) Speaker
(D) President

119. In the absence of the Speaker who performs the duties of transacting the business in Lok Sabha—
(A) Deputy Speaker
(B) Prime Minister
(C) Members of Parliament
(D) Parliamentary Affairs Minister

120. Under which Article of the Constitution, the Council of State (Rajya Sabha) has a Chairman and Deputy Chairman—
(A) Article 109
(B) Article 108
(C) Article 89
(D) Article 91

121. What members of the Parliament cannot represent—
(A) Members of Lok Sabha
(B) Members of Rajya Sabha
(C) Members of Legislative Assembly
(D) Members of both Houses of Parliament

122. How can member of Parliament resign from his seat—
(A) By speaking in the House
(B) By an announcement in the Press
(C) By writing under his signature addressed to the Chairman or the Speaker
(D) All the above

123. Who fixes salaries and allowances for the Chairman and Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha and the Speaker and Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha—
(A) Lok Sabha
(B) Rajya Sabha
(C) Members of the Parliament
(D) Parliament by Law
124. In which Schedule of the Constitution salaries and allowances for the Chairman and Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha and Speaker and Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha are specified—
(A) First
(B) Second
(C) Third
(D) Fourth

125. Under which Article Conduct of Business of Parliament is mentioned—
(A) Article 99
(B) Article 93
(C) Article 76
(D) Article 92

126. Under which Schedule of the Constitution every member of Parliament takes oath or affirmation—
(A) First
(B) Third
(C) Fifth
(D) Sixth

127. Under the British Rule, who was the First Deputy President of Central Legislative Assembly—
(A) Shri Sachchidananda Sinha
(B) Shri Abdul Matia Chaudhary
(C) Sir Muhammad Yakub
(D) Shri R. R. Shamnukhaym Chetty
128. Before Indian Independence, how was the Post of Deputy Speaker in the Central Legislative Assembly called—
(A) Vice President
(B) Vice Chairman
(C) Deputy President
(D) None of the above

129. Who was the last Deputy President of Central Legislative Assembly during the British Period—
(A) Sir Muhammad Yamin Khan
(B) Shri Abdul Matia Chaudhary
(C) Sir Muhammad Yakub
(D) Shri R. R. Shamnukham Chetty

130. Who was the Deputy Speaker of the Constituent Assembly (Legislative)—
(A) Shivaraj Patil
(B) G. Laxman
(C) S.V. Krishnamurthy Rao
(D) M. A. Ayyangar

131. Who was the Deputy Speaker of the First Lok Sabha—
(A) M. A. Ayyangar
(B) Sardar Hukam Singh
(C) M. Thambidurai
(D) None of the above

132. Who was the Prime Minister at the time of Second Lok Sabha—
(A) Lal Bahadur Shastri
(B) Pt. Jawahar Lal Nehru
(C) Narsimha Rao
(D) I. K. Gujral

133. Who was the First Lok Sabha Speaker unanimously elected—
(A) Hukam Singh
(B) Dr. G.S. Dhillon
(C) M.A. Ayyangar
(D) B.R. Bhagat

134. In the First Lok Sabha Election, what was the expenditure incurred—
(A) Rs. 10.45 crore
(B) Rs. 5.90 crore
(C) Rs. 7.81 crore
(D) Rs. 14.43 crore

135. Who said ‘As President, I have no eyes but constitutional eyes. I cannot see you’—
(A) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(B) Dr. Radhakrishnan
(C) Abraham Lincoln
(D) Mahatma Gandhi

136. When was the First Lok Sabha dissolved—
(A) 4th April 1957
(B) 3rd April 1957
(C) 6th April 1957
(D) 8th April 1957

137. In the First Lok Sabha, what was the Representation of Women—
(A) 27
(B) 34
(C) 22
(C) 39

138. In the First Lok Sabha, how many seats were—
(A) 500
(B) 499
(C) 544
(D) 521

139. In which two Lok Sabhas Women Representation was equal—
(A) First and Sixth Lok Sabha
(B) First and Eighth Lok Sabha
(C) First and Fifth Lok Sabha
(D) First and Ninth Lok Sabha
140. Which Prime Minister of India imposed President Rule for more number of times—
(A) Jawahar Lal Nehru
(B) Lal Bahadur Shastri
(C) N. D. Deva Gowda
(D) Indira Gandhi

141. During the time of Jawahar Lal Nehru, how many Times Presidents Rule was reproduced—
(A) Seven
(B) Two
(C) Zero
(D) Four

142. During Lal Bahadur Shastri time, how many times President Rule was imposed—
(A) Four
(B) Ten
(C) Two
(D) Fifteen

143. During the time of Indira Gandhi, what was the number of President's Rule imposed—
(A) 16
(B) 48
(C) 4
(D) 6

144. During the time of Morarji Desai and Charan Singh, what was the number of times President Rule imposed—
(A) 16
(B) 4
(C) 5
(D) 10

145. In Rajeev Gandhi time, how many times President Rule was imposed—
(A) 15
(B) 20
(C) 5
(D) 6

146. At the time of V. P. Singh, how many times President's Rule was imposed—
(A) 2
(B) 6
(C) 7
(D) 8

147. During the period of Chandra Shekhar, how many times President's Rule was imposed—
(A) 9
(B) 4
(C) 3
(D) 11

148. During the time of P. V. Narsihmha Rao, what was the number of President's Rule—
(A) 90
(B) 100
(C) 7
(D) 11

149. At the time of H. D. Deva Gowda, what was the number of President's Rule—
(A) 2
(B) 5
(C) 13
(D) 16

150. Under which Article of the Constitution of India, Constitution of Parliament has been defined—
(A) 80
(B) 79
(C) 82
(D) 81

Answers :
101.(C) 102.(A) 103.(B) 104.(D) 105.(B) 106.(D) 107.(A) 108.(C) 109.(A) 110.(B)
111.(A) 112.(D) 113.(A) 114.(B) 115.(C) 116.(C) 117.(B) 118.(C) 119.(A) 120.(C)
121.(D) 122.(C) 123.(D) 124.(B) 125.(A) 126.(B) 127.(A) 128.(C) 129.(A) 130.(D)
131.(A) 132.(B) 133.(C) 134.(A) 135.(C) 136.(A) 137.(C) 138.(B) 139.(C) 140.(D)
141.(A) 142.(C) 143.(B) 144.(D) 145.(D) 146.(A) 147.(B) 148.(D) 149.(A) 150.(B)

151. Who nominates 12 members in the Council of State—
(A) Chairman of Rajya Sabha
(B) Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha
(C) President of India
(D) Prime Minister of India

152. Members of Rajya Sabha are elected by which members—
(A) Lok Sabha
(B) Legislative Assembly
(C) Council of State
(D) Legislative Council

153. Representative of Union territories in the Council of State shall be choosen in such a manner as decided by—
(A) As prescribed by law in the Assembly
(B) As prescribed by law by State
(C) As prescribed by law by the Union
(D) As prescribed by law in the Parliament
154. How many members represented Union territories in Lok Sabha—
(A) 20
(B) 21
(C) 22
(D) 23

155. For a Election to Lok Sabha, each State shall be divided into—
(A) Constituencies
(B) Territorial Constituencies
(C) Union Constituencies
(D) State Constituencies

156. How many members are fixed for Lok Sabha—
(A) 501
(B) 551
(C) 530
(D) 506

157. In which Article of the Constitution of India, duration of House of Parliament has been mentioned—
(A) 83
(B) 84
(C) 85
(D) 88

158. Which House shall not be a subject for dissolution—
(A) Lok Sabha
(B) House of People
(C) Council of State
(D) State Legislature

159. After how many years, one-third of the members of the Rajya Sabha retire—
(A) 6 years
(B) 3 years
(C) 5 years
(D) 2 years

160. Under which Constitutional subject in operation, life of Lok Sabha can be extended by one year—
(A) Proclamation of Emergency
(B) Proclamation of President Rule in the State
(C) Proclamation of Amendment to the Constitution
(D) None of the above

161. What is the period of Lok Sabha—
(A) Four years
(B) Six years
(C) Five years
(D) Three years

162. Under which Article of the Constitution of India, qualification for membership of Parliament has been mentioned—
(A) 88
(B) 84
(C) 89
(D) 91

163. What power the President may exercise from time to time in respect of Parliament—
(A) Prorogue either of the House of Parliament
(B) Dissolve House of the People
(C) A & B
(D) None of the above
164. What activities does the President perform in respect of both the Houses of the Parliament—
(A) Time to time to summon each of Parliament
(B) Prorogue either of the House of the Parliament
(C) Dissolve the Lok Sabha
(D) All the above
165. Under whose advice, the President shall have the power of summoning, prorogation and dissolution—
(A) Home Minister
(B) Prime Minister
(C) Council of Ministers
(D) Parliamentary Affairs Ministers

166. Within which period the President has to summon session of the Parliament—
(A) Six Months
(B) Five Months
(C) Four Months
(D) Three Months

167. Under which Supreme Court Judgment, action of the President to summon, prorogue and dissolve either of the Houses of the Parliament shall be unconstitutional if acted without advice of Council of Ministers—
(A) Indira Gandhi vs. Raj Narain A.I.R. 1975 S.C. 2299
(B) Rao vs. Indira Gandhi A.I.R. 1971 S.C. 1002
(C) Anandan vs. Chief Secretary, A.I.R. 1966 S.C 657
(D) None of the above

168. In the event of dissolution of Lok Sabha, who need not resign or get dismissed immediately—
(A) Prime Minister
(B) Home Minister
(C) Union Council of Ministers
(D) None of the above

169. Under which Constitutional Article, President has the right to address and send message to the Parliament—
(A) 84
(B) 83
(C) 85
(D) 86

170. Under which Constitutional Article, President has the right for Special Address to the Parliament—
(A) 87
(B) 88
(C) 89
(D) 90

171. Which law officer shall have the right to speak in both the Houses of Parliament—
(A) Solicitor General
(B) Advocate General
(C) Attorney General
(D) Legal Advisor

172. Which Article of the Constitution of India mentioned the posts of the Chairman and Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha—
(A) 90
(B) 89
(C) 93
(D) 94

173. Whom the Rajya Sabha has the power for removal—
(A) Speaker
(B) Deputy Speaker
(C) Council of President
(D) Deputy Chairman

174. During the absence of the Chairman, who runs the Rajya Sabha ?
(A) Deputy Chairman
(B) Prime Minister
(C) Home Minister
(D) Parliamentary Affairs Minister

175. Under which Article, House of the People can have the Speaker and Deputy Speaker—
(A) 95
(B) 93
(C) 98
(D) 96

176. What is the period laid down by the Constitution before the proposal for removal of Speaker and Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha can be taken up by a resolution in the Lok Sabha—
(A) 15 Days
(B) 18 Days
(C) 16 Days
(D) 14 Days

177. In Lok Sabha, who can not preside in the House while a Resolution for Removal from his office is under consideration—
(A) Speaker
(B) Deputy Speaker
(C) A & B
(D) None of the above

178. Under which Article Salaries and allowances of the Chairman and Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha and Speaker and Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha are mentioned—
(A) 97
(B) 96
(C) 95
(D) 94

179. Which Article mentions the conduct of business of the Houses of Parliament—
(A) 99
(B) 100
(C) A & B
(D) None of the above

180. Who appoints each member of either of the Houses of the Parliament after notification is received from the Election Commission—

(A) President
(B) Speaker of Lok Sabha
(C) Chairman of Rajya Sabha
(D) Prime Minister

181. Who shall not give vote in the first instance in either of the Houses of Parliament—
(A) Speaker
(B) Chairman
(C) A & B

(D) None of the above

182. When Speaker and Chairman shall give their votes on the Parliament.
(A) When Prime Minister asks them to give vote on the Bill
(B) When the House passes such a resolution
(C) In the case of a tie between Yes and No
(D) All the above

183. What is the Quorum laid down to constitute a meeting of either of the Houses of Parliament—

(A) one-tenth of the total number of members of that House
(B) one-fourth of the total number of members of that House
(C) one-fifth of the total number of members of that House
(D) one-half of the total number of members of that House

184. Which Article mentions disqualification of members in the Parliament—

(A) Article 101 to Article 104
(B) Article 101 to Articles 105
(C) Article 102 to Article 106
(D) Article 106 to Article 110

185. Lok Sabha has the supremacy in which matter—

(A) Railway Budget
(B) Defence Budget
(C) Foreign affairs
(D) Financial Bill

186. Normally, what kind of session does the Parliament hold—
(A) Budget session
(B) Monsoon session
(C) Winter session
(D) All the above

187. Which session of the year, President addresses both the Houses of Parliament—
(A) First session (Budget)
(B) Second session (Monsoon)
(C) Third session (Winter)
(D) None of the above

188. In which session of Parliament, Railway and General Budgets are presented—
(A) Monsoon session
(B) First session
(C) Winter session
(D) None of the above

189. What is the meaning of the adjournment motion under Parliamentary procedure—
(A) Member draws attention regarding important subject-matter
(B) Member wants the House to discuss his subject-matter
(C) Member wants to raise complicated issue
(D) Member wants to draw the attention of the House to way recent matter of urgent public importance having serious consequences.

190. Who has the power to accept adjournment in the House—
(A) Prime Minister
(B) Home Minister
(C) Speaker in the Lok Sabha and Chairman in the Rajya Sabha
(D) All the above

191. Which authority in the Parliament has the right to adjourn the House—
(A) Speaker of Lok Sabha and Chairman of Rajya Sabha
(B) President
(C) Parliamentary Affairs Minister
(D) Prime Minister

192. Who has the power to present adjournment motion in Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha—
(A) Minister
(B) Deputy Speaker
(C) Prime Minister
(D) Member of the said House

193. In the Parliament, every Bill has to pass through which stages of Reading before it becomes act—
(A) First Reading
(B) Second Reading
(C) Third Reading
(D) All the above

194. When a Bill is passed by the Parliament and the President, what is the status of the name—
(A) Law
(B) Bill approved
(C) Bill exercised for administration
(D) Government procedure

195. Which two houses, can have a joint sitting—
(A) Legislative Assembly and Parliament
(B) Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha
(C) Council of State and Legislative Council
(D) None of the above

196. When does the President assent the Bill—
(A) Lok Sabha passes the Bill
(B) Rajya Sabha passes the Bill
(C) Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha both passed the Bill
(D) None of the above

197. In India, when does the financial year commence—
(A) First April
(B) Second April
(C) First March
(f) Fifteenth March

198. On the subject of budget, demands for grant are arranged in which way—
(A) Prime Minister
(B) Finance Minister
(C) Ministry wise
(D) All the above

199. In how many parts, the Budget is presented in Lok Sabha—
(A) One
(B) Two
(C) Three
(D) Four

200. How are the parts of the Budget known as—
(A) General Budget
(B) Railway Budget
(C) A & B
(D) None of the above

Answers :
151.(C) 152.(B) 153.(D) 154.(A) 155.(B) 156.(C) 157.(A) 158.(C) 159.(D) 160.(A)
161.(C) 162.(B) 163.(C) 164.(D) 165.(C) 166.(A) 167.(B) 168.(C) 169.(D) 170.(A)
171.(C) 172.(B) 173.(D) 174.( ) 175.(B) 176.(D) 177.(C) 178.(A) 179.(C) 180.(A)
181.(C) 182.(C) 183.(A) 184.(A) 185.(D) 186.(D) 187.(A) 188.(B) 189.(D) 190.(C)
191.(A) 192.(D) 193.(D) 194.(A) 195.(B) 196.(C) 197.(A) 198.(C) 199.(B) 200.(C)

201. In the Parliament, what is the meaning of the Government Bill—
(A) Bill presented by Ruling Party member
(B) Bill approved by the Government
(C) Only the Prime Minister presents the Bill
(D) A Bill introduced by any Minister in either of the Houses of the Parliament

202. In the Second Reading, what kind of process is adopted to approve the Bill—
(A) A general discussion on the Bill
(B) Clause by clause consideration of the Bill
(C) A & B
(D) None of the above

203. Who has the authority to call a joint sitting of the two Houses of Parliament—
(A) Prime Minister
(B) President
(C) Member of Lok Sabha
(D) Member of Rajya Sabha

204. Who has the power to accord his assent or withhold his assent to a Bill passed by the parliament—
(A) President
(B) Member of the House
(C) Minister
(D) None of the above

205. Which Bill President can neither return nor withhold his assent—
(A) Defence Bill
(B) Money Bill
(C) Law Bill
(D) Financial Account Committee Bill

206. How may Standing Committees are there in Lok Sabha—
(A) 14
(B) 15
(C) 15
(D) 18

207. Standing Committees in Lok Sabha are—
(A) Business Advisory Committee & Committee of Privileges
(B) Committee on Absence of Members from the sitting of the House & Committee on Estimates
(C) Committee on Government assurances and Committee on papers laid on the Table
(D) All the above

208. Financial Committees in Lok Sabha are—
(A) Committee on Estimates
(B) Public Accounts Committee
(C) Public Undertaking Committee
(D) All the above

209. Ad hoc Committees in Parliament are—
(A) Committee on Draft Five Year Plan, etc.
(B) Committee in the conduct of certain members during the President Address (C) Select or Joint Committee on Bills
(D) All the above

210. Who appoints Ad hoc Committee on Parliament—
(A) Speaker of Lok Sabha
(B) Chairman of Rajya Sabha
(C) A & B
(D) None of the above

211. By which procedure the Indian President and American President are elected as laid down by their country's constitution—
(A) Elected through Member of Legislature
(B) Elected by the People
(C) Elected by State Legislatures
(D) Elected by an Electoral College

212. In what way our Indian Parliament is not Sovereign or Supreme with respect to the Constitution—
(A) In the Preamble, Constitution of India defines people of India as Sovereign
(B) Written Constitution of India
(C) Separation of Power and Checks and Blanees between the three constitutional organ
(D) All the above

213. Who has said that basic features of the Indian Constitution do not amount to a change—
(A) Prime Minister
(B) Parliament
(C) Supreme Court of India
(D) Government

214. What is the nature of India's political system—
(A) Presidential System
(B) Parliamentary System
(C) A & B
(D) None of the above

215. Which Constitutional Article was very much affected in the Supreme Court Judgement of Kesavanand Bharti vs. State of Kerala—
(A) Article 352
(B) Article 368
(C) Article 351
(D) Article 342

216. Which constitutional article emopowers amendment in the Constitution of India—
(A) Article 368
(B) Article 356
(C) Article 357
(D) Article 359

217. Which constitutional organ has the power to amend Constitution of India—
(A) Judiciary
(B) Executive
(C) Legislative
(D) Parliament

218. On which subject, Parliament has the power to amend the Constitution and the same also need ratification by the State Legislature—
(A) Articles 54, 55, 73, 162 and 241 or Chapter IV of Part V, Chapter V of Part VI or Chapter I of Part XI
(B) Any of the Lists in the Seventh Schedules of the representation of State on Parliament
(C) The Provisions of Article 368
(D) All the above
219. Under which Constitutional Amendment Act, Article 368 of the Constitution was amended for the first time—
(A) 25th Amendment Act
(B) 26th Amendment Act
(C) 24th Amendment Act
(D) 27th Amendment Act

220. Which Supreme Court Judgement pronounced that Fundamental Rights cannot be abridged—
(A) Golak Nath vs. State of Punjab A.I.R. 1967 S.C. 1643
(B) Kesavanand Bharti vs. State of Kerala A.I.R. 1973 S.C. 1961
(C) Indira Gandhi vs. Rajnarain A.I.R. 1975 S.C. 2299
(D) None of the above

221. Who curbed the Judicial Review power of Judiciary through Amendment of the Constitution—
(A) State Legislature
(B) Parliament
(C) Council of State
(D) Legislative Council
222. Who restored the Judicial Review power of Judiciary under Indian Constitution—
(A) Supreme Court of India
(B) High Court
(C) Chief Metropolitan Magistrate
(D) District Court

223. In which House, Janta Government failed to secure two-third majority for new clause under Article 368 for introducing referendum for effecting changes in certain logic features of the Constitution—
(A) Legislative Council
(B) State Legislature
(C) State Assembly
(D) Rajya Sabha

224. Who said in his judgement that no part of our Constitution is unamendable—
(A) Allahabad High Court
(B) Calcutta High Court
(C) Madras High Court
(D) Supreme Court of India

225. What was the important landmark judgement regarding amendment of the Constitution (Article 368)

(A) Shankari Prasad vs. Union of India
(B) Golak Nath vs State of Punjab
(C) Kesavananda vs State of Kerala, Minerva Mill vs. Union of India
(D) All the above

226. Which Supreme Court judgement described the basic structure of the Constitution of India for the first time—

(A) Sankari Prasad vs. Union of India
(B) Kesavananda vs. State of Kerala
(C) Indira Gandhi vs. Union of India
(D) Golak Nath vs. State of Punjab

227. How many judges of the Supreme Court were in the Bench to describe the basic structure of the Constitution for the first time in the landmark Judgement Kesavananda vs. State of Kerala—
(A) Article 13
(B) Article 12
(C) Article 14
(D) Article 15

228. Under which Chief Justice of India, the Constitution Bench described the basic structure of the Constitution for the first time—
(A) Mr. Justice J. M. Shelat
(B) Mr. Justice J. S. Verma
(C) Mr. Justice C. J. Sikri
(D) Mr. Justice K. V. Chandrachud

229. In which Supreme Court Judgement, it has been pronounced that Parliament cannot enlarge its own powers by making itself new Constitution—
(A) Sasanka vs. Union of India
(B) Kesavananda vs. State of Kerala
(C) Minerva Mills vs. Union of India
(D) Sankari Prasad vs. Union of India

230. What is the nature of the Indian Constitution—
(A) Rigid Constitution
(B) Flexible Constitution
(C) A & B
(D) None of the above

231. Which Articles in the Indian Constitution represent emergency provisions—
(A) Article 348-354
(B) Article 352-360
(C) Article 359-361
(D) Article 368-380

232. Under which article of the Indian Constitution proclamation of emergency has been defined—
(A) Article 352
(B) Article 353
(C) Article 354
(D) Article 358

233. Which article in the Constitution of India defines effect of proclamation of Emergency—
(A) Article 356
(B) Article 353
(C) Article 354
(D) Article 257

234. Which Constitutional Article defines that only the union has the power to protect states against external aggression and internal disturbance—
(A) Article 359
(B) Article 360
(C) Article 355
(D) Article 361
235. Which Constitutional article defines the provisions in case of failure of constitutional machinary in States—
(A) Article 356
(B) Article 358
(C) Article 359
(D) Article 369

236. Which Constitutional article defines exercise of Legislative power after proclamation is issued under article 356—
(A) Article 358
(B) Article 357
(C) Article 360
(D) Article 358

237. Which article defines suspession of the provisions of Article 18 during emergency—
(A) Article 344
(B) Article 345
(C) Article 343
(D) Article 358

238. Which constitutional article defines the provision in respect of financial emergency—
(A) Article 359
(B) Article 357
(C) Article 356
(D) Article 350

239. Which constitutional article defines the provision in respect of financial emergency—
(A) Article 348
(B) Article 351
(C) Article 360
(D) Article 362

240. Which constitutional article defines protection of President and Governors—
(A) Article 362
(B) Article 363
(C) Article 368
(D) Article 301

241. Which constitutional article defines protection against publication of proceedings of Parliament and Legislature—
(A) Article 361D
(B) Article 361A
(C) Article 364
(D) Article 365
242. Which constitutional article defines the Bar to interference by Courts in disputes arising out of certain treaties, agreements, etc.—
(A) Article 363
(B) Article 370
(C) Article 371
(D) Article 372

243. Which constitutional article abolished the Privy Purses—
(A) Article 374
(B) Article 392
(C) Article 363A
(D) Article 364

244. Which constitutional article defines the effect of failure to comply with or to give effect to direction given by the Union—
(A) Article 356
(B) Article 367
(C) Article 368
(D) Article 365

245. Which constitutional article defines the various definitions of constitutional subject—
(A) Article 366
(B) Article 369
(C) Article 375
(D) Article 378

246. Which Fundamental Rights Article is not in operation during the emergency—
(A) Article 22
(B) Article 19
(C) Article 23
(D) Article 24

247. Which constitutional organ has wider powers when emergency is in operation—
(A) Executive
(B) Legislative
(C) Judiciary
(D) A & B

248. Which organ does not have the right to question and justify as null and void the law which violates Fundamental Rights article?
(A) Executive
(B) Judiciary
(C) Legislative
(D) None of the above

249. Who has the power to declare that citizen has no right to move any court for the enforcement of the rights conferred by Part 3 of Fundamental Rights during the course of emergency—
(A) Executive
(B) President
(C) Governor
(D) Prime Minister

250. Which Fundamental Rights article is enforceable during the period of emergency—
(A) 20
(B) 21
(C) A & B
(D) None of the above

Answers :
201.(D) 202.(C) 203.(B) 204.(A) 205.(B) 206.(D) 207.(D) 208.(D) 209.(D) 210.(C)
211.(D) 212.(D) 213.(C) 214.(B) 215.(B) 216.(A) 217.(D) 218.(D) 219.(C) 220.(A)
221.(B) 222.(A) 223.(D) 224.(D) 225.(D) 226.(B) 227.(A) 228.(C) 229.(C) 230.(C)
231.(B) 232.(A) 233.(B) 234.(C) 235.(A) 236.(B) 237.(D) 238.(A) 239.(C) 240.(D)
241.(B) 242.(A) 243.(C) 244.(D) 245.(A) 246.(B) 247.(D) 248.(B) 249.(B) 250.(C)

251. Through which constitutional amendment in article 359, it has been laid down that Fundamental Rights under articles 20 and 21 are enforceable during the operation of emergency—
(A) 44th Amendment Act
(B) 46th Amendment Act
(C) 45th Amendment Act
(D) 48th Amendment Act

252. On whose satisfaction period of emergency shall be extended for operation in case security of India or any part of the Indian territory is threatened—
(A) Prime Minister
(B) Home Minister
(C) President of India
(D) Vice-President of India

253. Article 20 of the Fundamental Rights represents which subject—
(A) Equality of opportunity in matters of public employment
(B) Protection in respect of Conviction of Offence
(C) Protection of life and personal liberty
(D) None of the above

254. Article 21 of the Fundamental Rights deals with which subject—
(A) Protection of certain rights regarding freedom of speech,
(B) Protection in respect of conviction of offence
(C) Protection against arrest and detention in certain cases
(D) Protection of life and personal liberty

255. Who declares the financial emergency—
(A) President
(B) Prime Minister
(C) Finance Minister
(D) None of the above

256. After declaration of financial emergency by the President, what is the period of operation without approval by the Parliament—
(A) Three Months
(B) Four Months
(C) Two Months
(D) One Month

257. Within what period, the Parliament has to approve Financial emergency declared by the President—
(A) Six Months
(B) Two Months
(C) Three Months
(D) Four Months

258. In Financial Emergency, salaries and allowances of which groups get reduction—
(A) Central Government Employees
(B) Judges of the Supreme Court and High Courts
(C) A & B
(D) None of the above

259. Raj Pramukh represents whom under the Indian Constitution—
(A) President
(B) Governor
(C) A & B
(D) None of the above

260. Under the Indian Constitution, what is the concept behind the protection of President and Governors—
(A) President & Governors are above the law
(B) President & Governors make any law for the Constitution
(C) President and Governors are answerable to Prime Minister
(D) President and Governors shall not be answerable to any court to the exercise and performance of the powers and duties of their office

261. By which Constitutional amendment, the appellation Rajpramukh was omitted—
(A) 7th Amendment Act 1956
(B) 4th Amendment Act 1955
(C) 6th Amendment Act 1956
(D) 10th Amendment Act 1961

262. Which constitutional article provides personal immunity for President and Governors for official act—
(A) Article 362
(B) Article 363
(C) Article 368
(D) Article 361

263. Which constitutional article provides personal immunity to the head of the states for his official act from legal action, including proceedings for contempt of Court—
(A) Article 361
(B) Article 362
(C) Article 368
(D) Article 369

264. Under which constitutional articles, newspapers do not have the right to publish report of the proceedings of a secret session of either of the Houses of Parliament or Legislative Assembly & Legislative Council—
(A) 361
(B) 361A
(C) 361B
(C) 361C

265. Spell out the condition under Article 361A by which any person or newspaper cannot be sued for legal proceeding if any report of proceedings of Parliament and State Legislature is published—
(A) The report must be a report of the `procedings' of a House of the Union or a State Legislature. Hence, it must be relevant to a motion or other business before the House, and must not have been expunged
(B) It must be a ‘report’ as distinguished from one article or `Comment'.
(C) Such report must be substantially true. Hence, an extract or a garbed or perverted report would not be protected. The reporting must not be actuated by malice
(D) All of the above

266. Any Court including Supreme Court does not have constitutional right under Article 143 to exercise jurisdiction over any dispute arising out of any provision of which agreements that were in operation before commencement of the Constitution—
(A) Treaty, Agrrement
(B) Covenant, Engagement
(C) Sanad
(D) All of the above

267. What is the meaning of Indian State in the Constitution—
(A) Any territory recognised by President of India
(B) Any territory before commencement of Indian Constitution by the British ruler
(C) Any territory which government of the Dominion of India recognised
(D) B & C

268. Before which Constitutional Amendment, Prince, Chief or other person were recognised by the President of India as the Ruler of the Indian State—
(A) 26th Amendment Act 1971
(B) 24th Amendment Act 1971
(C) 16th Amendment Act 1963
(D) 17th Amendment Act 1964

269. Under which Constitutional Amendment Privy Purses were abolished—
(A) 36th Amendment Act 1975
(B) 26th Amendment Act 1971
(C) 16th Amendment Act 1963
(D) 17th Amendment Act 1964

270. Under which Constitutional Article, Union Government has the power to give direction to the State Govt. regarding any of the provisions of the Constitution—
(A) Article 368
(B) Article 362
(C) Article 365
(D) Article 367

271. If any State Government fails to comply with or to give effect to any direction given by the Union Government, who can come to conclusion that a situation has arisen in which the State cannot carry out governance in accordance with the provision in the Constituion—
(A) President
(B) Prime Minister
(C) Home Minister
(D) Supreme Court

272. Under Article 365 what are the duties of the Union Government with respect to State Governments—
(A) Ensure that every State Minister should act in accordance with the advice of Chief Minister
(B) Ensure that Governor acts under advice of the Chief Minister
(C) Ensure that Governance in the State is in accordance with the Constitution
(D) All of the above

273. What is the meaning of Foreign State as given in our Indian Constitution—
(A) Federal State
(B) Commonwealth State
(C) Nation
(D) Any State other than India

274. Which Constitutional article defines the work of Administrative Tribunal—
(A) Article 323A
(B) Article 233B
(C) Article 223B
(D) None of the above

275. Under which part of the Constitution, Tribunals have been defined—
(A) Part Four
(B) Part Seven
(C) Part Fifteen
(D) Part Ten

276. What are the subjects for adjudication or trial by Administrative Tribunal—
(A) Private sector employee recruitment disputes
(B) Decide on recruitment in Public sector
(C) Dispute and complaints with respect to recruitment and condition of service of persons appointed in the public services in connection with the officers of the Union or of any State or of any local or other Authority within the territory of India
(D) None of the above

277. Administrative Tribunal is meant for whom—
(A) Union
(B) Each State
(C) Two or more States
(D) All the above

278. Which Constitutional Amendment introduced the subject Tribunal in the Indian Constitution—
(A) Forty-second Amendement Act
(B) Sixty-ninth Amendment Act
(C) Seventeenth Amendment Act
(D) Seventy-one Amendment Act

279. On which Administrative Tribunal have no right to adjudicate disputes—
(A) Members of the Defence Forces
(B) Officers and Servants of the Supreme Court or of any High Court
(C) Members of the Secretariat Staff of Parliament or of any legislature of any State or Union Territory
(D) All of the above

280. Administrative Tribunals entertain those employees who are under employment with whom?
(A) Union or State Government
(B) A Local or other authority within the territory of India
(C) A Corporation owned or controlled by the Government
(D) All of the above

281. Jurisdiction of the Administrative Tribunal is not supplementary but is a complete substitute for whom—
(A) High Court
(B) Civil Courts
(C) A & B
(D) None of the above

282. Under which constitutional article, jurisdiction of the Supreme Court has been retained over the Administrative Tribunals—
(A) Article 356
(B) Article 136
(C) Article 132
(D) Article 134

283. Jurisdiction of the High Courts under Article 226 over service matters has been taken over by which judicial institution—
(A) District Court
(B) Administrative Court
(C) Chief Metropolitan Magistrate
(D) High Court

284. Which Constitutional Institution conducts elections of Parliament and State Legislatures and to the offices of President and Vice-President—

(A) State Election Commission
(B) Provisional Election Commission
(C) Election Commission
(D) None of the above

285. After 44th Constitutional Amendment provisions relating with election in Part XV of the Constitution of India have been retained in how many Articles—

(A) 324-329A
(B) 324-329
(C) 324-327
(D) 224-228

286. Which Constitutional Article relating with the subject of election was omitted through 44th Amendment Act 1975—
(A) 329A
(B) 329B
(C) 329C
(D) 329

287. Through which Constitutional Amendment, Article 329A relating with the subject of Election was inserted—
(A) 25th Amendment Act 1971
(B) 27th Amendment Act 1971
(C) 28th Amendment Act 1972
(D) 39th Amendment Act 1975

288. Through which Constituional Article, the subject of Bar to interference by courts in electoral matters have been elaborated—
(A) Article 327
(B) Article 229
(C) Article 329
(D) None of the above

289. Which Constitutional Article elaborated power of Parliament to make provision with respect to election to legislatures—
(A) Article 329
(B) Article 327
(C) Article 328
(D) Article 330

290. Who appoints Chief Election Commissioner—
(A) President
(B) Prime Minister
(C) Parliament
(D) None of the above

291. Who acts as the Chairman of the Election Commission after appointment as Election Commissioner—
(A) Prime Minister
(B) Home Minister
(C) Chief Appointment Officer
(D) Chief Election Commissioner

292. Under whose advice, President of India appoints Regional Election Commissioner—
(A) Prime Minister
(B) Chief Justice of High Court
(C) Governor
(D) Chief Election Commissioner
293. Who decides allotment of symbols to Political Parties—
(A) Political Party leader
(B) Political Party Governing Committees
(C) Election Committee of Political Party
(D) Election Commission

294. Conduct of Election Rules, 1961 was made by the Central Govt. in consultation with which commission—
(A) Parliamentary Members Inquiry Commission
(B) Regional Election Commissioners
(C) Election Commission
(D) None of the above

295. Who decides disputes relating with the allotment of symbols to Political Parties—
(A) Representation Act 1952
(B) Representation Act 1953
(C) Representation of the People Act 1951
(D) Election Commission

296. Who made a law for conduction of services and tenure of the office of Election Commissioners and Regional Election Commissioner—
(A) Chief Election Commissioner
(B) President
(C) Parliament
(D) State Legislature

297. Who decides de-recognition of the Political Party solely on the basis of its performance at the election, e.g., bycotting of the election—
(A) Supreme Court of India
(B) Election Commission
(C) High Court
(D) District Court

298. Can de-recognition of the Political Party by the Election Commission on the basis of its performance at the last Election be subjected to scrutiny—
(A) Judicial Review
(B) Judicial Order
(C) Judicial Scrutiny
(D) None of the above

299. On whose recommendation, Election Commissioner or Regional Election Commissioner shall be removed from the office—
(A) Chief Judicial Magistrate
(B) President
(C) Election Commission
(D) None of the above

300. Who has ample powers under Article 324(1) to make appropriate orders as to the conduct of Elections, e.g., cancellation of poll and ordering to poll according to exigencies in particular areas, introduction of electronic voting machines, postponing of election, etc.—
(A) Regional Election Commissioner
(B) Election Committee of Government
(C) Electoral Officer
(D) Election Commission

Answers :
251.(A) 252.(C) 253.(B) 254.(D) 255.(A) 256.(C) 257.(B) 258.(C) 259.(C) 260.(D)
261.(A) 262.(D) 263.(A) 264.(B) 265.(D) 266.(D) 267.(D) 268.(A) 269.(B) 270.(C)
271.(A) 272.(C) 273.(D) 274.(A) 275.(C) 276.(C) 277.(D) 278.(A) 279.(D) 280.(D)
281.(C) 282.(B) 283.(B) 284.(C) 285.(B) 286.(A) 287.(D) 288.(C) 289.(B) 290.(A)
291.(D) 292.(D) 293.(D) 294.(C) 295.(D) 296.(C) 297.(B) 298.(A) 299.(C) 300.(D)

301. Under Article 324, Election Commission has vast functions which are as given in what area—
(A) Administrative power
(B) Marginally Judicative power
(C) Legislative power
(D) All of the above

302. After which Constitutional Amendment, even though decision of the Election Commission is issued from New Delhi, the order of the commission can be challenged by the aggrieved party in another state in the High Court of that State under Article 226—
(A) 15th Amendment Act
(B) 10th Amendment Act
(C) 11th Amendment Act
(D) 12th Amendment Act

303. Through which procedure, a writ can be filed in the Supreme Court against decision of the Election Commission on recognising or de-recognising a political party for the purpose of an electoral symbol, or which group within a particular party, constitutes that party for been allotted of Election symbol to that party—
(A) Under Article 32
(B) Under Article 229
(C) Special leave petition
(D) Public Interest Litigation

304. Under which Constitutional Article, Special leave to appeal lies with the Supreme Court—
(A) Article 136
(B) Article 137
(C) Article 138
(D) Article 139

305. Under which Constitutional Article review of judgement or orders lies with the Supreme Court—
(A) Article 139
(B) Article 137
(C) Article 140
(D) Article 141

306. Under which Constitutional Article enlargement of the jurisdiction of the Supreme Court is mentioned—
(A) Article 145
(B) Article 148
(C) Article 138
(D) Article 143

307. Which Constitutional Article mentions conformation the Supreme Court of powers to issue certain writs—
(A) Article 145
(B) Article 168
(C) Article 169
(D) Article 139

308. Which Constitutional Article mentions transfer of certain cases for Supreme Court—
(A) Article 139A
(B) Article 139B
(C) Article 139C
(D) Article 138
309. Which Constitutional Article defines law declared by Supreme Court to be binding on all courts—
(A) Article 142
(B) Article 141
(C) Article 143
(D) Article 144

310. Under which Constitutional Article, President has the power to consult Supreme Court—
(A) Article 145
(B) Article 146
(C) Article 143
(D) Article 144
311. Under which Constitutional Article, Civil and Judicial authorities are to act in aid of the Supreme Court—
(A) Article 245
(B) Article 248
(C) Article 146
(D) Article 144

312. Under which Constitutional Article repeal of special provision as to disposal of questions relating to constitutional validity of law is mentioned—
(A) Article 144A
(B) Article 345
(C) Article 248
(D) Article 249

313. Which Constitutional Article defines the subject ‘Officers and servants and expenses of the Supreme Court.’
(A) Article 296
(B) Article 147
(C) Article 247
(D) Article 245

314. Which Constitutional Article defines ‘Interpretation' of Constitutional right of Supreme Court—
(A) Article 163
(B) Article 162
(C) Article 147
(D) Article 161

315. Which Constitutional Article defines functions of Comptroller and Auditor General of India.—
(A) Article 148-150
(B) Article 149-150
(C) Article 148-155
(D) Article 148-151

316. Which Constitutional Article defines, Comptroller and Auditor General of India—
(A) Article 148
(B) Article 149
(C) Article 150
(D) Article 151
317. Through which Constitutional Article duties and powers of `Comptroller and Auditor General' is detailed—
(A) Article 153
(B) Article 149
(C) Article 199
(D) Article 168
318. Which Constitutional Article defines `Form of Accounts of the Union and the State.'—

(A) Article 151
(B) Article 152
(C) Article 150
(D) Article 153

319. Under which Constitutional Article, the Election Commission is a Tribunal—

(A) Article 136
(B) Article 136(3)
(C) Article 136
(2)(D) Article 136(1)

320. Up to which year Chief Election Commissioner functioned as one-man Commission—

(A) 1988
(B) 1989
(C) 1987
(D) 1986

321. In which months and year, the President notified that besides the Chief Election Commisioner the Commission should have two other members called as Election Commissioner—

(A) Nov. 1989
(B) Feb. 1989
(C) Oct. 1989
(D) Dec. 1989

322. Through which Supreme Court Judgement, it has been pronounced that Chief Election Commissioner should have two other members called Election Commissioner with Coordinate power—

(A) Durga Shankar vs. Raghuraj A.I.R. 1954 S.C. 520
(B) Mohinder vs. Election Commission A.I.R. 1978 S.C. 851
(C) Inderjeet vs. Election Commission A.I.R. 1984 S.C 1911
(D) Dhanoa vs. Union of India A.I.R. 1991 S. C. 1745

323. Chief Election Commissioner cannot be removed except by which process—
(A) Resignation
(B) Presidential Order
(C) Impeachment
(D) Judicial Decision
324. Under which Chief Election Commissioner, Election Commission was made a body of multimember Election Commission—
(A) T. N. Seshan
(B) H. K. Sen
(C) S. P. Sen Verma
(D) M. S. Gill

325. Which Chief Election Commissioner appealed the Supreme Court that under Article 324, Election Commission as a multi member Election Commission is not valid—
(A) K. B. Sundram
(B) T. Swaminathan
(C) H. S. Shakdhar
(D) T. N. Seshan

326. During T. N. Seshan period as Chief Election Commissioner, who was the other Commissioner in the Election Commission—
(A) M. S. Gill
(B) G. V. Krishnamurthy
(C) A & B
(D) None of the above

327. For which Election, one General Electoral Roll for every territorial Constituency shall exist—
(A) Lok Sabha
(B) Rajya Sabha
(C) Legislature
(D) All the above

328. On what basis, Election to Lok Sabha and State Legislature shall be conducted—
(A) Adult Suffrage
(B) Indirect Election
(C) Direct Election
(D) None of the above

329. Under which Constitutional Amendment, provision for minimum age as 18 years for the Indian citizen was made to become eligible to vote—
(A) 60th Amendment Act 1988
(B) 61st Amendment Act 1989
(C) 62nd Amendment Act 1989
(D) None of the above

330. Before 61st Amendment Act 1989, what was the age of Indian citizen eligible to vote in the Election—
(A) 23
(B) 24
(C) 21   (D) 22
331. Under Article 326, what was the Constitutional requirment for the Indian citizen not to become eligible as a voter—
(A) Non Resident
(B) Unsoundness of Mind
(C) Crime or Corrupt or Illegal practive
(D) All the above

332. Which Constitutional Article lays down qualification for becoming a voter—
(A) Article 328
(B) Article 339
(C) Article 326
(D) Article 295

333. Which Constitutional Article lays down qualifications for the Indian citizens for election to Parliament—
(A) Article 81
(B) Article 80
(C) Article 83
(D) Article 84

334. Which Constitutional Article defines qualifications for the Indian citizen for election to a State Legislature—
(A) Article 173
(B) Article 175
(C) Article 177
(D) Article 178

335. Under the Indian Constitution, what does `Adult Suffrage' signify—
(A) Children
(B) Persons
(C) Any Indian citizen who is of the age of 18 years and above
(D) None of the above

336. Who makes law with respect to Elections for State Legislature—
(A) Parliament
(B) Judiciary
(C) Government
(D) Election Commission

337. Under Constitutional Articles 327 or 328, which subject shall not be called to be questioned in any Court—
(A) Delimitation of Constituencies
(B) The allotment of seats to such Constituency
(C) A & B
(D) None of the above

338. How the election to either House of Parliament or to either House of the Legislature of the State shall be called in question in the courts whose manner of presentation may be provided made by law by appropriate Legislature—

(A) PIL (Public Interest Litigation)
(B) SLP (Special Leave Petition)
(C) Action under Article 32
(D) Election Petition

339. Which Constitutional Article lays down the reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes in the Lok Sabha—

(A) Article 330
(B) Article 332
(C) Article 333
(D) Article 334

340. Which Constitutional Article deals with `Representation of the Anglo-Indian Community' with House of the People—

(A) Article 334
(B) Article 331
(C) Article 332
(D) Article 333

341. Under Article 331, how many members of the Anglo-Indian Community can be nominated in Lok Sabha by the President—

(A) 3
(B) 4
(C) 2
(D) 1

342. In which State a separate district has been reserved for Scheduled Tribes—
(A) Assam
(B) Andhra Pradesh
(C) Karnataka
(D) Kerala

343. Which Constitutional Article deals with representation of the Anglo-Indian Community in the Legislative Assembly—
(A) Article 334
(B) Article 335
(C) Article 336
(D) Article 333

344. Under Article 333, how many members from the Anglo-Indian Community can be nominated by the Governor in the Legislative Assembly—
(A) 8
(B) 1
(C) 4
(D) 3

345. Under which Constitutional Amendment of Article 334, reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes in the Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assembly has been laid down—

(A) 31st Amendment Act 1959
(B) 23rd Amendment Act
(C) 45th Amendment Act 1980 & 62nd Amendment Act 1989
(D) All the above

346. Before which Constitutional Amendment, 20 years were fixed for reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes in Lok Sabha and State Legislature—

(A) 23rd Amendment Act 1969
(B) 8th Amendment Act 1959
(C) 44th Amendment Act 1978
(D) 45th Amendment Act 1980

347. Through which Constitutional Amendment, 30 years were fixed for reservation of seats for SC and ST in Lok Sabha and State Assembly—

(A) 45th Amendment Act 1980
(B) 50th Amendment Act 1984
(C) 23rd Amendment Act 1969
(D) 51st Amendment Act 1984

348. Which Constitutional Amendment fixes 40 years for reservation of seats for SC and ST in Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assembly.
(A) 55th Amendment Act 1986
(B) 56th Amendment Act 1987
(C) 52nd Amendment Act 1985
(D) 45th Amendment Act 1980

349. Which Constitutional Amendment lays down 50 years for reservation of seats for SC and ST in the House of People and State Legislative Assembly—
(A) 62nd Amendment Act 1989
(B) 44th Amendment Act 1928
(C) 45th Amendment Act 1980

(D) None of the above

350. Which Constitutional Article mentions ‘Claims of SC and ST in Govt. services and post’—
(A) Article 336
(B) Article 335
(B) Article 338
(D) Article 339

Answers :
301.(D) 302.(A) 303.(C) 304.(A) 305.(B) 306.(C) 307.(D) 308.(A) 309.(A) 310.(C)
311.(D) 312.(A) 313.(B) 314.(C) 315.(D) 316.(A) 317.(D) 318.(C) 319.(D) 320.(B)
321.(C) 322.(D) 323.(C) 324.(A) 325.(D) 326.(C) 327.(D) 328.(A) 329.(B) 330.(C)
331.(D) 332.(C) 333.(D) 334.(A) 335.(C) 336.(A) 337.(C) 338.(D) 339.(A) 340.(B)
341.(C) 342.(A) 343.(D) 344.(B) 345.(D) 346.(B) 347.(C) 348.(D) 349.(A) 350.(B)

351. Which Constitutional Article lays down the provision for a National Commission for SC and ST—
(A) Article 337
(B) Article 334
(C) Article 338
(D) Article 339

352. Which community gets special provision for Central Services in Article 336—
(A) Sikh Community
(B) Muslim Community
(C) Hindu Community
(D) Anglo-Indian Community

353. At the time of commencement of the Indian Community how many years were laid down for appointment to the post in the Railways, Customs, Postal & Telegraph services for the Anglo-Indian community—
(A) 2 years
(B) 5 years
(C) 4 years
(D) 6 years

354. What shall be the composition of National Commission for SC and ST—
(A) Chairperson
(B) Vice-Chairperson
(C) Five other members
(D) All the above

355. National Commission for SC and ST shall be made by which constitutional institution—
(A) Parliament
(B) Executive
(C) Judiciary
(D) State Legislature

356. Which Constitutional Article defines the SC—
(A) Article 345
(B) Article 346
(C) Article 341
(D) Article 342

357. Which Constitutional Article defines the ST—
(A) Article 345
(B) Article 343
(C) Article 347
(D) Article 342

358. Which Constitutional Article specifies official language of the Union—
(A) Article 343
(B) Article 344
(C) Article 345
(D) Article 346

359. Under Constitutional Article 343, which is the official language of the Union—
(A) Urdu
(B) Hindi
(C) English
(D) b & c

360. Which Constitutional Article empowers the State Legislature to adopt Hindi or any state language as the official language of that state—
(A) Article 345
(B) Article 346
(C) Article 348
(D) Article 349

361. Whose satisfaction is required under Constitutional Article 347 regarding special provision for creating language spoken by a section of the population of a state—
(A) Parliament
(B) Judiciary
(C) President
(D) Prime Minister

362. Which Constitutional Article defines official language for communication between the state and another state and the Union—
(A) Article 349
(B) Article 346
(C) Article 243
(D) Article 305

363. Which Constitutional Article defines the Panchayat Raj—
(A) 243O
(B) 243A
(C) 243
(D) 243I

364. In the Indian Constitution, which type of the Sabha is mentioned under Panchayat Raj—
(A) District Sabha
(B) Gram Sabha
(C) Nagar Panchayat Sabha
(D) Zila Sabha

365. Under Constitutional Article 243, what is the meaning of Panchayat—
(A) Self Gram Panchayat Raj
(B) Government of Village
(C) Self Government
(D) None of the above

366. Under Constitutional Article 243D, in Panchayat who gets reservation—
(A) Scheduled Caste
(B) Scheduled Tribes
(C) A & B
(D) None of the above

367. Who make composition of Panchayat under Constitutional Article 243(C)—
(A) State Assembly
(B) Lok Sabha
(C) Council of State
(D) Legislature of State

368. Which Constitutional Article defines disqualification for the members of Panchayat—
(A) Article 243F
(B) Article 243G
(C) Article 243I
(D) None of the above

369. Which Constitutional Article defines the duration of the Panchayat—
(A) Article 243N
(B) Article 243O
(C) Article 243E
(D) Article 243B

370. Which Constitutional Article define `Municipalities'—
(A) Article 243P
(B) Article 243Q
(C) Article 243T
(D) Article 343U

371. Which Constitutional Article defines `constitution of Municipalities'—
(A) Article 243M
(B) Article 243I
(C) Article 243L
(D) Article 243Q

372. Constitutionally, who notifies the phenomenal area of—
(A) Parliament
(B) Governor
(C) Chief Minister
(D) State Government

373. A Municipal Council is situated in which area—
(A) Larger Urban area
(B) Urban area
(C) Smaller Urban area
(D) None of the above

374. Governor issues a notification for which areas on the subject of constitution of Municipal area—
(A) A Transitional Area
(B) A Smaller Urban Area
(C) A Larger Urban Area
(D) All the above

375. For Election of Members to Lok Sabha and Legislative Assembly, electoral constituencies comprise wholly or partly of which area—
(A) A Transitional Area
(B) Municipal Area
(C) Legislative Council
(D) None of the above

376. Where wards Committees are found—
(A) Gram Sabha
(B) Gram Panchayat
(C) Municipalities
(D) None of the above

377. Under Constitutional Article 343D, a metropolitan area represent how many number of population—
(A) Ten Lakhs or more
(B) Fifteen Lakhs or more
(C) Less than Ten Lakhs
(D) Less than Five Lakhs

378. Under Constitutional Article 243U, what is the maximum duration of Municipalities—
(A) 4 years
(B) 6 years
(C) 5 years
(D) 3 years

379. Which Constitutional Article defines Election to Municipalities—
(A) Article 243A
(B) Article 243ZA
(C) Article 243ZB
(D) Article 243P

380. Through which Constitutional Amendment, Municipalities continued to be in force in the state which existed before commencement of the Indian constitution—
(A) Seventy-fourth Amendment Act 1992
(B) Forty-fourth Amendment Act 1978
(C) Forty-fifth Amendment Act 1989
(D) Forty-seventh Amendment Act 1984

381. The Constitution of India, was drafted and enacted in which language—
(A) Hindi
(B) English
(C) Tamil
(D) Telugu

382. In Article 394A which language is the authoritative text of the constitution of India—
(A) Punjabi
(B) Manipuri
(C) Hindi
(D) Urdu

383. Which Constitutional Article states ‘This Constitution may be called the Constitution of India’
(A) Article 397
(B) Article 396
(C) Article 395
(D) Article 394

384. Which Constitutional Article states that Hindi is the official language—
(A) Article 343
(B) Article 346
(C) Article 345
(D) Article 347

385. In which language script, Constitution of India was signed by the members of the Constitutent Assembly on 21st Jan. 1950—
(A) English
(B) Hindi
(C) A & B
(D) None of the above

386. Which Constitutional Article defines the ‘Provision in case of failure of Constitutional Authority in the state—
(A) Article 356
(B) Article 357
(C) Article 353
(D) Article 351

387. After which report, President promulgates President Rule in the State—
(A) Prime Minister
(B) Union Home Minister
(C) Chief Minister
(D) Governor

388. Who has the Authority to approve President Rule in the state—
(A) Parliament
(B) Lok Sabha
(C) State Legislature
(D) Council of State

389. Who has the constitutional power not to approve `President Rule' in the state under Article 356—
(A) Prime Minister
(B) Parliament
(C) Union Council of Ministers
(D) State Government

390. In case President Rule in the state is not approved by the Parliament, ‘For how many months the same promulgation shall last’.

(A) Four Months
(B) Two Months
(C) Three Months
(D) Six Months

391. Under Article 356 Governor shall not be bound by whose advice—

(A) Chief Minister Council of Ministers
(B) President
(C) Prime Minister
(D) None of the above

392. In which Supreme Court Judgement. it has been pronounced that `Article 356 cannot be invoked unless it can be held that government of the state cannot be run in accordance with the provision of the Constitution'

(A) Arun vs. Union of India A.I.R. 1992 Allahabad S.C. 1918
(B) S. R. Bommai vs. Union of India A.I.R. 1990 Kant 95
(C) A & B
(D) None of the above

393. In which Supreme Court Judgement it has been pronounced that ‘the Union Government cannot dismiss a duly elected State Government on the sole ground that the ruling party in the state suffered an overwhelming defeat in the election of the Lok Sabha—

(A) S. R. Bommai vs. Union of India A.I.R. 1994 S.C. 1916
(B) State of Rajasthan vs. Union of India A.I.R. 1977 S.C. 1361
(C) A & B
(D) None of the above

394. How many Schedules are incorporated in the Constitution of India—
(A) Eleventh Schedule
(B) Tenth Schedule
(C) Ninth Schedule
(D) Twelfth Schedule

395. Which Constitutional Article lays down distribution of work through the Union List, State List, and Concurrent List between the Union and State—
(A) 246
(B) 247
(C) 248
(D) 249

396. In the Union List, how many subjects are incorporated—
(A) 95
(B) 92
(C) 97
(D) 99

397. In the State List, how many subjects are included—
(A) 65
(B) 66
(C) 64
(D) 63

398. In the Concurrent list, how many subjects have been included—
(A) 42
(B) 43
(C) 45
(D) 47

399. Constitutionally, how a law can be made out of the subject in the Concurrent List—
(A) Union
(B) State
(C) Council of State
(D) A & B

400. Constitutionally, who has the power to make a law on the subject mentionable in the Union List—
(A) Lok Sabha
(B) Parliament
(C) Rajya Sabha
(D) Legislative Council

Answers :
351.(C) 352.(D) 353.(A) 354.(D) 355.(A) 356.(C) 357.(D) 358.(A) 359.(D) 360.(A)
361.(C) 362.(B) 363.(C) 364.(B) 365.(C) 366.(C) 367.(D) 368.(A) 369.(C) 370.(A)
371.(D) 372.(B) 373.(C) 374.(D) 375.(B) 376.(C) 377.(A) 378.(C) 379.(B) 380.(D)
381.(B) 382.(C) 383.(D) 384.(A) 385.(C) 386.(A) 387.(D) 388.(A) 389.(B) 390.(D)
391.(A) 392.(C) 393.(C) 394.(D) 395.(A) 396.(C) 397.(B) 398.(D) 399.(D)400.(B)

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